Here is what looks like (but is not) an Olympiad problem. Is it really that tough, or am I overlooking a simple solution?
I have a system of sequences $\sigma_0(m),\sigma_1(m),\ldots\,$ defined for all integer $m\ge 0$ as follows. If $\min\{m,n\}=0$, then $\sigma_n(m)=0$. If both $m$ and $n$ are positive, then find the (uniquely defined) integers $K\ge 1$ and $j\in[0,n-1]$ such that $K^n\le m<(K+1)^n$ and indeed, $K^{n-j}(K+1)^j\le m<K^{n-j-1}(K+1)^{j+1}$, and writing $m=K^{n-j}(K+1)^j+R$, let $$ \sigma_n(m) := (Kn+n-j)K^{n-j-1}(K+1)^{j-1} + \sigma_{n-1}(R). $$ (The expression $(Kn+n-j)K^{n-j-1}(K+1)^{j-1}$ can be understood as the "formal derivative" $\frac{d}{dK}K^{n-j}(K+1)^j$.) Thus, for instance, $\sigma_1(m)=1$ for all $m\ge 1$, and $$ \sigma_2(m) = \begin{cases} 2K+1\ &\text{if}\ K^2<m\le K^2+K, \\ 2K+2\ &\text{if}\ K^2+K<m\le (K+1)^2. \end{cases} $$
Is it true that for all $k,n,m_1,\ldots,m_k\ge 1$, we have $$ \sigma_n(m_1+\dotsb+m_k) \le \sigma_{n-1}(m_1)+\dotsb+\sigma_{n-1}(m_k) + \max\{ m_1,\ldots,m_k \} ? $$
The cases where $n=2$ and $m_1=\dotsb=m_k=1$ follow without much effort, but already the general case where $k=1$ seems difficult:
Is it true that $\sigma_n(m)\le\sigma_{n-1}(m)+m$ for all integer $m,n\ge 1$?
Computations seem to confirm the inequality in question.