For an abelian variety $A$, the $p$-adic Selmer group is defined to be the subset of $H^1(G_k,H_1^{et}(A;\mathbb{Q}_{p}))$ whose restriction to $G_{k_v}$ is in the image of $A(k_v)$ for all places $v$ of $k$.
Minhyong Kim's paper states on its third page (p.91) that his Selmer varieties generalize $\mathbb{Q}_p$ Selmer groups of elliptic curves. As I understand it, his Selmer variety would refer to the subset of $H^1(G_k,H_1^{et}(A;\mathbb{Q}_{p}))$ that is unramified for $v \nmid p$ and crystalline at $v \mid p$ (assuming the abelian variety has good reduction there).
Is it clear that these two definitions are equivalent? Why is this true?