The starting point of this question is the fact that any retract of a $T_2$-space is closed.
Let's say a topological space $(X,\tau)$ is $T_{\textrm{rc}}$ if all retracts of $X$ are closed.
All $T_{\textrm{rc}}$-spaces are $T_1$, because singletons are always retracts, and a space is $T_1$ if and only if all singleton subsets are closed. So we have $T_2 \implies T_{\textrm{rc}}\implies T_1$.
The second implication is not an equivalence: Consider $(\omega,\mathcal{P}_{\text{cf}}(\omega))$ where $\mathcal{P}_{\text{cf}}(\omega) = \{\emptyset\}\cup \{U\subseteq \omega: \omega\setminus U \text{ is finite}\}$. Let $S$ be the set of even numbers and $r:\omega \to S$ be defined by $2n\mapsto 2n$ and $2n+1 \mapsto 2n$ for all $n\in\omega$. Then $S$ is a retract of $(\omega,\mathcal{P}_{\text{cf}}(\omega))$ but it is not closed. So the implication $T_{\textrm{rc}}\implies T_1$ is not an equivalence.
Question: Do we have $T_2 \Leftrightarrow T_{\text{rc}}$?