1
$\begingroup$

Let $X$ be a K3 surface obtained as a double covering of $\mathbb{P}^1 \times \mathbb{P}^1$ branching along a $(4,4)$-divisor. I think the natural line bundle $\pi^*\mathcal{O}_{\mathbb{P}^1\times \mathbb{P}^1}(1,1)$ is an ample line bundle on $X$. How can one prove that $\pi^*\mathcal{O}_{\mathbb{P}^1\times \mathbb{P}^1}(1,1)$ is ample? What is the degree of $X$ with respect to this ample line bundle?

$\endgroup$
2
  • 7
    $\begingroup$ The pull back of an ample line bundle by a finite morphism is ample. I suggest that you use MSE for this kind of question, which is not at research level. $\endgroup$
    – abx
    Mar 17, 2014 at 10:20
  • $\begingroup$ I didn't know that fact. Thanks for your advice on the use of this site. $\endgroup$
    – user48202
    Mar 17, 2014 at 10:26

2 Answers 2

3
$\begingroup$

The ampleness follows from Nakai--Moichezon criterion. The degree is twice the degree of $O(1,1)$ on $P^1\times P^1$, so is $4$.

$\endgroup$
2
  • $\begingroup$ Is it obvious that the degree is twice of that of the base? $\endgroup$
    – user48202
    Mar 17, 2014 at 10:22
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ It is. Take two divisors $D_1$ and $D_2$ in $O(1,1)$. Then $f^{-1}(D_1) \cap f^{-1}(D_2) = f^{-1}(D_1 \cap D_2)$. $\endgroup$
    – Sasha
    Mar 17, 2014 at 11:36
0
$\begingroup$

Let $f:X\rightarrow Y$ be a finite morphism. If $\mathcal{L}$ is an ample line bundle on $Y$ then $f^{*}\mathcal{L}$ is ample on $X$. Let $V\subseteq X$ be a subvariety. By the projection formula we have $f^{*}\mathcal{L}^{dim(V)}\cdot V = \mathcal{L}^{dim(V)}\cdot f_{*}V$. Furthermore $\mathcal{L}^{dim(V)}\cdot f_{*}V>0$ because $\mathcal{L}$ is ample, and $f$ finite implies $dim(f_{*}V) = dim(V)$. Finally $(f^*\mathcal{L})^{dim(X)} = deg(f)\mathcal{L}^{dim(Y)} >0$. By Nakai-Moishezon $f^{*}\mathcal{L}$ is ample.

In your case via the Segre embedding $s:\mathbb{P}^1\times\mathbb{P}^1\rightarrow\mathbb{P}^3$ the line bundle $\mathcal{O}(1,1)$ corresponds to the line bundle $\mathcal{O}_{Q}(1)$ on the quadric $Q = s(\mathbb{P}^1\times\mathbb{P}^1)$. Since linear sections of a quadric are plane conics and two such linear sections intersects in two points (namely two linear sections give a line and the two points are the points of intersection between the line and $Q$) we get $deg(\mathcal{O}(1,1)) = 2$. Now your $f:X\rightarrow \mathbb{P}^1\times\mathbb{P}^1$ is of degree $2$. So $deg(f^{*}\mathcal{O}(1,1)) = 2\cdot deg(\mathcal{O}(1,1)) = 4$.

$\endgroup$

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge that you have read and understand our privacy policy and code of conduct.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.