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Let X be a K3 surface obtained as a double covering of P1×P1 branching along a (4,4)-divisor. I think the natural line bundle πOP1×P1(1,1) is an ample line bundle on X. How can one prove that πOP1×P1(1,1) is ample? What is the degree of X with respect to this ample line bundle?

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    The pull back of an ample line bundle by a finite morphism is ample. I suggest that you use MSE for this kind of question, which is not at research level.
    – abx
    Mar 17, 2014 at 10:20
  • I didn't know that fact. Thanks for your advice on the use of this site.
    – user48202
    Mar 17, 2014 at 10:26

2 Answers 2

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The ampleness follows from Nakai--Moichezon criterion. The degree is twice the degree of O(1,1) on P1×P1, so is 4.

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  • Is it obvious that the degree is twice of that of the base?
    – user48202
    Mar 17, 2014 at 10:22
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    It is. Take two divisors D1 and D2 in O(1,1). Then f1(D1)f1(D2)=f1(D1D2).
    – Sasha
    Mar 17, 2014 at 11:36
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Let f:XY be a finite morphism. If L is an ample line bundle on Y then fL is ample on X. Let VX be a subvariety. By the projection formula we have fLdim(V)V=Ldim(V)fV. Furthermore Ldim(V)fV>0 because L is ample, and f finite implies dim(fV)=dim(V). Finally (fL)dim(X)=deg(f)Ldim(Y)>0. By Nakai-Moishezon fL is ample.

In your case via the Segre embedding s:P1×P1P3 the line bundle O(1,1) corresponds to the line bundle OQ(1) on the quadric Q=s(P1×P1). Since linear sections of a quadric are plane conics and two such linear sections intersects in two points (namely two linear sections give a line and the two points are the points of intersection between the line and Q) we get deg(O(1,1))=2. Now your f:XP1×P1 is of degree 2. So deg(fO(1,1))=2deg(O(1,1))=4.

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