Let X be a K3 surface obtained as a double covering of P1×P1 branching along a (4,4)-divisor. I think the natural line bundle π∗OP1×P1(1,1) is an ample line bundle on X. How can one prove that π∗OP1×P1(1,1) is ample? What is the degree of X with respect to this ample line bundle?
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7The pull back of an ample line bundle by a finite morphism is ample. I suggest that you use MSE for this kind of question, which is not at research level.– abxMar 17, 2014 at 10:20
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I didn't know that fact. Thanks for your advice on the use of this site.– user48202Mar 17, 2014 at 10:26
2 Answers
The ampleness follows from Nakai--Moichezon criterion. The degree is twice the degree of O(1,1) on P1×P1, so is 4.
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1It is. Take two divisors D1 and D2 in O(1,1). Then f−1(D1)∩f−1(D2)=f−1(D1∩D2).– SashaMar 17, 2014 at 11:36
Let f:X→Y be a finite morphism. If L is an ample line bundle on Y then f∗L is ample on X. Let V⊆X be a subvariety. By the projection formula we have f∗Ldim(V)⋅V=Ldim(V)⋅f∗V. Furthermore Ldim(V)⋅f∗V>0 because L is ample, and f finite implies dim(f∗V)=dim(V). Finally (f∗L)dim(X)=deg(f)Ldim(Y)>0. By Nakai-Moishezon f∗L is ample.
In your case via the Segre embedding s:P1×P1→P3 the line bundle O(1,1) corresponds to the line bundle OQ(1) on the quadric Q=s(P1×P1). Since linear sections of a quadric are plane conics and two such linear sections intersects in two points (namely two linear sections give a line and the two points are the points of intersection between the line and Q) we get deg(O(1,1))=2. Now your f:X→P1×P1 is of degree 2. So deg(f∗O(1,1))=2⋅deg(O(1,1))=4.