If $X\longrightarrow S$, where $S=\operatorname{Spec}(k)$, is a proper smooth morphism of dimension $p$ between $\mathbb{F}_{p}$ schemes with Frobenius $F$, then there is an exact pairing $\wedge:\Omega^{i}(M)\times\Omega^{n-i}_{X/S}\longrightarrow\Omega^{n}_{X/S}$.
I am currently reading Deligne and Illusie's paper (https://eudml.org/doc/143480), and I am stuck on page 255. The authors make the claim that the above-mentioned exact pairing induces another one \begin{equation*} F_{*}\Omega^{i}_{X/S}\times F_{*}\Omega^{p-i}_{X/S}\longrightarrow F_{*}\Omega^{p}_{X/S}\longrightarrow H^{p}F_{*}\Omega^{\bullet}_{X/S}\longrightarrow\Omega^{p}_{X/S} \end{equation*} They make the claim that the last morphism (the inverse of which they construct a few paragraphs earlier) "is just the trace morphism" and that the exactness of the pairing somehow follows from this claim. I don't quite get what they mean by that and why that pairing is exact. Can somebody please explain it to me in as much detail as possible?