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A student in my class asked me the following question, I did know what tools will be needed to attack it. But I found it is an interesting question.

Let $f_1,f_2$ be two convex functions on $[0,1]$ and let $\varepsilon>0$. For every $x\in[0,1]$,we have $\max\{f_1(x),f_2(x)\}>\varepsilon$. Does there exist a $\lambda\in [0,1]$ so that $$ \lambda f_1(x)+(1-\lambda)f_2(x)>0, \quad \forall x\in [0,1]? $$

Any hints are welcome! Thanks!

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    $\begingroup$ This is a classical question about whether $\sup_\lambda\inf_x$ equals $\inf_x\sup_\lambda$ or not. Since it deals with the convex (in $x$)/concave (in $\lambda$) function $\lambda f_1(x)+(1-\lambda) f_2(x)$, the answer might be in the book Convex Analysis and variational problems by Ekeland & Temam $\endgroup$ Dec 17, 2020 at 18:12
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    $\begingroup$ Following Denis Serre's comment, this holds if $f_1,f_2$ are continuous on $[0,1]$ by von Neumann's minimax theorem, right? In general, they are always continuous on the interior, and in one-dimension (unless I'm missing some pathological example), one should be able to extend $f_1,f_2$ continuously to the boundary while only possibly decreasing the values there (but preserving the maximum assumption by continuity), and then conclude via the continuous case. But I might be missing something... $\endgroup$ Dec 17, 2020 at 21:35

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Here is the easiest explanation, two intersecting straight lines satisfy this property, and two intersecting straight lines are the worst-case among all convex functions when fixing the intersection point of the two functions.

And the following proof is an effort to make the above intuition rigorous and mathematical readable.


The following argument only available for convex function with reasonable regularity

First, as point out by Loic Teyssier, we need to consider the case independently: when $f_1,f_2$ do not intersection. And when $f_{1}, f_{2}$ is not intersect and then we can take $\lambda=0$ or 1 to make $\lambda f_{1}(x)+(1-\lambda) f_{2}(x)=\max \left\{f_{1}, f_{2}\right\}$.

Second, as point out by Dieter Kadelka, we need to consider the endpoint $\{0,1\}$ separate because the prove of N-L formula relay the point $a,b$ is in some interval, in the following argument. This can be down use the convex property to gain a lower bound on $f_1(0),f_1(1),f_2(0),f_2(1)$.

Then, this is true and in fact, we can determine $\lambda$. We need the following 2 lemmas.

In the case $\exists \quad x_{0} \in[0,1] . \quad f_{1}\left(x_{0}\right)=f_{2}\left(x_{0}\right)>0$

$f$ is a continue couvex function on [0.1], then $f$ is lipschitz function.

$f$ is a lipschitz function. then $f^{\prime}(x) \quad$ exist a.e. in $[0,1]$ and $\forall \quad 0\leq a< b\leq 1$, $$f(b)-f(a)=\int_{a}^{b} f^{\prime}(x) d x$$ We can understand the previous N-L formula in distribution to avoid unnecessary trouble(The derivative does not exist, the left and right derivatives are not equal, and the derivative is zero but the function is a strictly monotonic function)

then $\forall x \in[0.1]$, $\begin{aligned} \lambda f_{1}(x)+(1-\lambda) f_{2}(x) &=\lambda\left(f_{1}\left(x_{0}\right)+\int_{x_{0}}^{x} f_{1}^{\prime}(t) d t\right)+(1-\lambda)\left(f_{2}\left(x_{0}\right)+\int_{x_{0}}^{x} f_{2}(t) d t\right) \\ &=\lambda f_{1}\left(x_{0}\right)+(1-\lambda) f_{2}\left(x_{0}\right)+\lambda \int_{x_{0}}^{x} f_{1}^{\prime}(t) d_{t}+(1-\lambda) \int_{x_{0}}^{x} f_{2}^{\prime}(t) d t \end{aligned}$

Now $\quad$ WLOG $\quad$ we assame
$f_{1}(x)>0$ When $0 \leqslant x \leqslant x_{0}$, $f_{2}(x)>0 $ when $ x_{1} \leqslant x \leqslant 1$, and assume $f_{1}^{\prime}\left(x_{0}\right)>0. f_{2}^{\prime}\left(x_{0}\right)<0$.
When $ 1 \geqslant x>x_{0}$. Then,

$$ \begin{array}{l} \int_{x_{0}}^{x} f_{1}^{\prime}(t) d t \geqslant\left|x-x_{0}\right| \cdot f_{1}^{\prime}\left(x_{0}\right) \\ \int_{x_{0}}^{x} f_{2}^{\prime}(t) d t \geqslant\left|x-x_{0}\right| \cdot f_{2}^{\prime}\left(x_{0}\right) \end{array} $$

When $0 \leqslant x<x_{0}$, then, \begin{array}{l} \int_{x_{0}}^{x} f_{1}^{\prime}\left(t) d t \geqslant\left|x-x_{0}\right| \cdot f_{1}^{\prime}\left(x_{0}\right)\right. \\ \int_{x_{0}}^{x} f_{2}^{\prime}(t) d t \geqslant \left|x-x_{0}\right| \cdot f_{2}^{\prime}\left(x_{0}\right) \end{array}

So take $\lambda$ solve $\quad \lambda f_{1}^{\prime}\left(x_{0}\right)+(1-\lambda) f_{i}^{\prime}\left(x_{0}\right)=0$, then $\quad \lambda f(x)+(1-\lambda) f_{2}(x) \geqslant 0 \quad \forall \quad x\in [0,1]$.


To prove the property is true for the general convex function we may follow the argument above and modified the detail(especially the H-L formula part) by use supporting lines of $f_1,f_2$ and observe convex functions lie above their supporting lines.

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    $\begingroup$ $f_i'$ need not exist (only the right and left derivatives) and $f_i$ is not necessarily continuous, only on $(0,1)$. But I think that does not really matter. $\endgroup$ Dec 17, 2020 at 13:06
  • $\begingroup$ Dieter Kadelka : yes I do not check the details, but it is enough that NL-formula is true and we do not need the derivative of $f_i$ exist everywhere and we allow it blow up at several point(it can only blow up at countable many point because a fixed convex function is bounded variational) $\endgroup$
    – katago
    Dec 17, 2020 at 13:09
  • $\begingroup$ For the functions $f_1=-a\cos(\pi x)+\epsilon, f_2=a\sin(2\pi x)+\epsilon$, for some $\epsilon$ and $a$ such that $|f_1|,|f_2|<1$, we get $\cos(\pi x)[2(1-\lambda)\sin(\pi x)-\lambda] >-\epsilon$. And for very small $\epsilon$ , we can see that there is no $\lambda <1$ for which the inequality is always satisfied. $\endgroup$
    – Alapan Das
    Dec 17, 2020 at 15:18
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    $\begingroup$ Oh, Yes. It's mentioned in the question.I didn't see it. $\endgroup$
    – Alapan Das
    Dec 17, 2020 at 15:26
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    $\begingroup$ I don't understand why your first lemma holds. Take $f_1=1$ and $f_2=2$...? $\endgroup$ Dec 17, 2020 at 15:54

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