The question is in the title exactly as I want to ask it, but let me provide some background and motivation.
Many of the properties of fields studied in the algebraic theory of quadratic forms are manifestly elementary properties in the sense of model theory: that is, if one field has this property, then any other field which has the same first-order theory in the language of fields has that same property. Examples:
being quadratically closed, being formally real, being real-closed, being Pythagorean (sum of two squares is always a square), for any fixed positive integer n, having I^n = 0 (follows from the Milnor conjectures!), the u-invariant, the level, the Pythagoras number...
These properties imply that at least for some fields $K$, if $L$ is any field elementarily equivalent ot $K$, then $W(L) \cong W(K)$: e.g. $K$ is quadratically closed, $K$ is real-closed, $K = \mathbb{C}((t))$. Is it always the case that $K \equiv L$ implies $W(K) \cong W(L)$? I am pretty sure the answer is no because for instance if $\operatorname{dim}_{\mathbb{F}_2} K^{\times}/K^{\times 2}$ is infinite, I think it is not an elementary invariant. And if you take a field with vanishing Brauer group, then $W(K)$ is, additively, an elementary $2$-group of dimension $\operatorname{dim}_{\mathbb{F}_2} K^{\times}/K^{\times 2} + 1$.
But are there known positive results in this direction?